How ought we to understand, in a pious way, the [passage] of the Gospel, “the Father judges no one but has given every judgment to the Son,” (Jn. 5:22) and how, in another place, does it say, “I judge no one” (Jn. 8:15) but “the word that I have spoken, that will judge him” (Jn. 12:48)?
As God, neither the Father nor the Son “will judge anyone.” For neither does the human being become a judge of irrational beings but of human beings. And the Father “has given the judgment to the Son,” not because He is God but because He is human. And He [the Son] will judge all things, comparing His own conduct as a human being with ours. And again, His word will judge, that is, His teaching, which is revealed through His deeds according to that which has been written, “that which Jesus began to do as well as teach.” (Acts 1:1) (Questions and Doubts: Various Questions and Selections from Various Passages that are Perplexing. Question I, 25)